Sequences and continuous functions #413
Description
One of the other PROTEUS team members was working on some exercises related to sequences and series.
An exercise was proposed that asked the value of the limit of \cos(\pi a_n), given that \lim_{n\to\infty} a_n = 1.
But I don't think APEX states the theorem that if f is continuous, then \lim_{n\to\infty}f(a_n) = f(\lim_{n\to\infty} a_n).
My question for @APEXCalculus : should this theorem be stated in the textbook? It could be added to the Theorem on properties of limits of sequences (Currently Theorem 9.1.18).